NaimExplain

Describe the aim of the Stockholm Convention. Answer:A treaty, to address toxic chemicals that persist in the environment, bioaccumulate in the food chain, and have the ability to travel long distances

Compare and contrast the safety approach of the U.S. as opposed to the European nations. Answer:Europe: products are tested extensively in an effort to bring only safe substances to market. This approach helps to minimize potentially harmful products from being brought to market, but it takes time and it may delay some perfectly safe products from being utilized. US: "innocent until proven guilty" approach, allows products to be introduced to the market with limited testing and then recalls substances if potentially harmful substances are found to be unsafe after additional testing is conducted.

Distinguish between risk assessment and risk management. Answer:Risk assessment is a process by which risk is quantified and compared in an effort to identify potential problems. Risk assessment, when applied to the field of environmental health helps to determine if a substance or activity might pose a health threat to people or wildlife.

Define the term "risk" as applied to hazard exposure. Answer:Defined as the mathematical probability that an action or substance will result in harm.

Explain the concept of "synergistic effects" when considering mixes of chemicals. Answer:Chemical substances introduced simultaneously can sometimes cancel out each other's effects, sum each other's affects, or multiply each other's effects

Distinguish between "acute exposure" and "chronic exposure." Answer: Acute exposure : exposure is a high exposure over a short period. Chronic exposure : low exposure over a long period.

Distinguish between an "LD50," an ED50," and a threshold dose. Answer: LD50 : scientists calculate the amount of toxicant it took to kill half of the animals tested. ED50 : defined as the amount of a chemical it takes for 50% of the test population to be affected in an adverse way.

Explain the reasoning behind a "dose-response curve." Answer:Measure the effect of the toxicant at different doses or alternatively, the number of animals affected by different doses of the toxicant. The data is plotted on a graph.

Methods of studying hazards: Animal testing Answer:Epidemiological studies are time-intensive and the resultant affects could be attributed to factors other than the toxicant of interest, it is often necessary to conduct laboratory experiments to establish causation

Methods of studying hazards: Epidemiological studies Answer:Compares information among groups of people (usually an exposed and a non-exposed group). The potential effects are tracked generally for an extended period and specific effects are measured and calculated (e.g., death or cancer rates). Statistics are then employed to determine if there is a significant difference between the two groups, which may indicate that a toxicant was responsible. Unethical to use on humans so animal testing.

Methods of studying hazards: case history approach Answer:If the subjects of interest are humans, however, scientists rely on case histories, epidemiological studies, and animal testing. Initially, scientists will study sick individuals by taking down information in case histories, but they are limited in providing information on long-term effects and the probability/risk of a toxicant.

Describe how toxicants move through food chains by biomagnifications. Answer:Toxicants that are fat or oil soluble can be retained in the fat or muscle tissues of animals, causing them to build up (called bioaccumulation). When an animal consumes another animal that contains toxicants in their tissues, the toxicants continue to build up and the resultant concentration can magnify in a process called biomagnification.

Summarize the findings in Rachel Carson's book Silent Spring. Answer:The book documented detrimental effects of pesticides on the environment, particularly on birds. Carson accused the chemical industry of spreading disinformation, and public officials of accepting industry claims uncritically. The book argued that uncontrolled and unexamined pesticide use was harming and even killing not only animals and birds, but also humans

Explain the biological significance of "endocrine disruptors." Answer:Endocrine disruptors because these toxicants may be quite widespread. Chemicals in this category can interfere with the normal functioning of hormones in animals by either blocking the action of naturally-occurring hormones, breaking down the naturally-occurring hormones, or by mimicking naturally-occurring hormones. When a compound mimics a naturally-occurring hormone, such as estrogen, it can result in feminization of male animals, as seen in the Florida alligators. This is an important section to read and understand so careful notes should be taken.

Define the term "infectious disease." Answer:Infectious diseases (also called communicable or transmissible diseases) occur when a pathogen attacks a host, resulting in illness.

Name and describe two specific environmental hazards that are: Cultural Answer:Cultural hazards are lifestyle hazards like smoking, which affect people's health.

Name and describe two specific environmental hazards that are: Biological Answer:Biological hazards results from interactions between organisms, resulting in an infectious disease.

Name and describe two specific environmental hazards that are: Chemical Answer:Chemical hazards are man-made toxicants like those created as pesticides and disinfectants. As mentioned in the Central Case, some of these chemicals mimic hormones that can interfere with normal endocrine systems, which in turn, negatively affect the reproductive health of animals.

Name and describe two specific environmental hazards that are: Physical Answer:Physical hazards are naturally occurring, including examples such as earthquakes, ultraviolet radiation, fires, floods, and blizzards.

Summarize Gillette's findings studying alligators in Florida. Answer:Reproductive abnormalities in Florida alligators that are believed to be linked with endocrine disruptors. Endocrine disruptors are chemicals that interfere with the endocrine (hormone) system, which in part, controls reproductive hormones. This research on the Florida alligators falls under a broad field of environmental health, which aims to assess environmental factors that would influence and affect human health and quality of life. Included in environmental health are impacts of human-made chemicals on the health of not only humans, but also wildlife like the Florida alligator.

Explain the processes involved in the formation of sedimentary rock. The processes in the formation of sedimentary rock primary starts with solar energy and gravity while water helps to transport the main components. A rock is broken down by weathering and erosion and transportation moves the particles of broken rock where it get deposited in rivers and other bodies of water. Then lithification is the final process of forming sedimentary rock by cementation, compaction and hardening of the sediments.

Differentiate between shortwave and longwave radiation. Visible light and ultraviolet radiation are commonly called shortwave radiation, while infrared radiation is referred to as longwave radiation. The Sun radiates energy mainly in the form of visible light, with small amounts of ultraviolet and infrared radiation. For this reason, solar radiation is usually considered shortwave radiation.

Describe three negative environmental effects of dams on wild rivers. Answer: Damming a river destroys habitat for wildlife and disrupts natural flooding cycles that provide nutrient-rich sediment to floodplains. The changes in water depth due to damming creates temperature changes in the water that can destroy may fish populations - populations that are unable to handle the rapid and severe thermal shock when cold water is released from the dams.

Distinguish between the storage technique and the run-of-river techniques of hydropower. Answer: Storage technique. In this technique, river water is blocked behind dams, which store or impound the water. Water is then released through the dam and as it moves through, it turns blades of turbines, which in turn, generate electricity. Electricity from the dam is sent to an electric grid through transmission lines. By storing and controlling the water in this fashion, a steady supply of electricity can be maintained. Alternatively, a run-of-river approach, can be used which does not disrupt the flow of river water.

Tell how electricity is generated using hydropower. Answer: Kinetic energy of moving water is used to turn turbines and produce electricity. Two approaches are employed to harness the power of water.

Compare and contrast the use of ethanol and biodiesel. Answer: Ethanol is used in automobiles that burn gasoline and is produced by fermenting crops that are rich in carbohydrates. In fermentation, the carbohydrates are converted to sugars and then ethanol. Biodiesel is used in diesel engines and is produced from vegetable oils, primarily soybean oil in the U.S. In comparison with oil, biodiesel emissions are less, the fuel economy is almost as good, and it costs only slightly more than oil.

Tell the main characteristics of using biomass energy. Answer: Biomass is the organic matter that makes up living organisms. When this material is harvested and used to produce energy, it is called biomass energy. Biomass energy has many sources including wood, charcoal, and combustible animal waste

Define the term meltdown and contrast events at Three Mile Island and Chernobyl. Answer: Three Mile Island in Pennsylvania. In 1979, a combination of mechanical failure and human error resulted in leakage of coolant water from the reactor. This caused the reactor core temperature to elevate and the metal around the uranium fuel rods started to melt. This meltdown caused the release of radiation, most of which was trapped in the containment building.

Tell how electricity is generated using nuclear energy. Answer: Energy that holds protons and neutrons in the atom of a nucleus. Energy from atoms is collected by converting energy from an atom's nucleus into thermal energy by transforming isotopes of an element into isotopes of other elements. Splitting the nuclei of an atom and resultant conversion from nuclear to thermal energy is called nuclear fission.

Describe the need for energy conservation. Answer: Because the number of renewable energy sources is limited, it is essential to begin to minimize fossil fuel use by employing energy conservation strategies.

Define the term cogeneration. Answer: One way to improve power plant efficiency is to make use of cogeneration (a practice where heat that is generated through the production of electricity is captured and then used to heat workplaces and homes and provide other kinds of power).

Describe the environmental hazards associated with drilling for oil. Answer: In order to drill in an area, an infrastructure must first be created, including roads, housing, pipeline, and waste piles, to name a few. Because many oil reserves are located in areas where slow plant growth occurs, destruction of these plants can have a negative long-term impact on the ecosystem.

Discuss the controversy relating to drilling in ANWR. Answer: Much of the debate over whether to drill in the 1002 area of ANWR rests on the amount of economically recoverable oil, as it relates to world oil markets, weighed against the potential harm oil exploration might have upon the natural wildlife, in particular the calving ground of the Porcupine caribou.

Define the term acid drainage. Answer: Refers to the outflow of acidic water from (usually abandoned) metal mines or coal mines.

List and describe two negative effects of coal mining. Answer: Strip mining for coal destroys extensive areas of land and habitat and causes soil erosion and chemical runoff in a process called acid drainage.

Tell the energy recovery potential and environmental dangers of the following: Methane hydrates Answer: The ice-core methane clathrate record is a primary source of data for global warming research, along with oxygen and carbon dioxide.

Tell the energy recovery potential and environmental dangers of the following: Oil shale Answer: Shale oil is a substitute for conventional crude oil; however, extracting shale oil from oil shale is more costly than the production of conventional crude oil both financially and in terms of its environmental impact

Tell the energy recovery potential and environmental dangers of the following: Oil sands Answer: Making liquid fuels from oil sands requires energy for steam injection and refining. This process generates 12 percent more greenhouse gases per barrel of final product than extraction of conventional oil

Define the term Hubbert's peak. Answer: Says that for any given geographical area, from an individual oil-producing region to the planet as a whole, the rate of petroleum production tends to follow a bell-shaped curve. It is one of the primary theories on peak oil.

Name five uses of petroleum products. Answer: Transportation fuels, fuel oils for heating and electricity generation, asphalt and road oil, and the feedstocks used to make chemicals, plastics, and synthetic materials

Distinguish between primary and secondary extraction of oil. Answer: Once oil deposits have been identified, exploratory drilling is conducted to determine the quantity of oil that may be available. Initial drilling and pumping of the oil (called primary extraction) is not very efficient, leaving as much as two-thirds of the oil in the ground and so secondary extraction is required which uses solvents or water to flush out the remaining oil.

List two ways that natural gas is formed. Answer: Natural gas is produced as a by-product when bacteria decomposes organic material under anaerobic conditions, producing primarily methane (CH4). Production of methane gas from decomposition of organic matter by bacteria in anaerobic conditions is called biogenic gas. Alternatively, natural gas can also be formed as the result of compression and heat deep underground. This is referred to as thermogenic gas.

Tell how coal is formed and distinguish between surface and strip mining. Answer: Subsurface mining consists of digging deep shafts in the ground, coupled with networks of tunnels to extract coal seams. Strip mining utilizes heavy machinery to remove large amounts of Earth to expose coal that is subsequently stripped from the ground.

Distinguish between aerobic and anaerobic decomposition. Answer: As they died and were covered by sediment, they were compressed in an environment largely devoid of oxygen - an anaerobic environment. Aerobic means "requiring air", where "air" usually means oxygen.

Define the term fossil fuel and tell how past living organisms formed this. Answer: Fuels formed by natural processes such as anaerobic decomposition of buried dead organisms. Fossil fuels contain high percentages of carbon and include coal, petroleum, and natural gas

How does natural gas compare to other fossil fuels for energy production and pollution? Less polluting and produces much more energy.

Identify and briefly describe the process that makes crude oil usable. Name the type of place where this process occurs. Crude oil must be refined, which involved separating crude oil into different fuels and other substances.

How do scientists use sound waves to find oil deposits? They send sound waves deep underground and determine how long it takes the waves to be reflected to reach different surface locations.

State 4 advantages of coal use compared to the use of other fossil fuels. 1. More abundant and less expensive. 2. Doesn't need much processing after it's removed. 3. Can be transported easily. 4. Coal doesn't require a pipeline.

How much of the world's energy is provided by coal? 1/4

How does the formation of oil differ from the formation of coal? Oil comes from animal remains.  Coal comes from plant remains.

2 Countries that are the main producers and users of coal? China USA

What are 3 drawbacks of alternative sources of fossil fuels? Expensive to extract and process.  Can cause environmental damage.  Speed up climate change.

Buyer: "If you fix all these items on my policy, how much will that cost?" Ironically in most cases we can modify the policy construction by just asking/negotiating with the carrier. The reason being; is that; the carrier will issue a very vanilla form as they want to underwrite the risk before they modify the contract language. In many cases the carrier will add coverage for no additional premium, I would say 60 to 70% of the time - basically a no-brainer. When we can't modify the policy for no additional premium the decision to spend more money is a subjective one, that we will discuss with you. I much rather be asked than to have my decision made for me based upon neglect.

Why is the process not considered a checklist? For example, one of the items we look for is the the possibility of an HRA. Once we find it, we don't say "okay check", we have to determine it's applicability for that client - so it takes finding which is a checklist function but then it takes a cognitive evaluation which is a special skill.

Prospect at a first meeting after you explained your process: "Can you give me an example of something you have found in your policy review?" We hesitate to do get in the weeds regarding specifics at this point because specifics creates a diversion that we focus on to the exclusion of the big picture before we have learned about you. That is, any example may not apply to you which can lead to the conclusion that the process does not apply to you or can not benefit you which would be a fallacy, however; with that in mind let me give you an examples which may or may not be relevant for you.

Explain to me, regarding the process, what is the essence regarding "understanding". Typically when something is missed it is because it was never pro-actively discussed. By designing a conversation about your practices and focusing on understanding versus being understood, our thinking is not distracted based on what we know but focused on what we don't know we don't know, learning what you don't know you don't know.